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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q115-Q120):

NEW QUESTION # 115
Ex-ante security attribution seeks to identify:

A. Portfolio outperformance
B. Why the portfolio performed the way it did
C. Future risks
D. An appropriate benchmark

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ex-ante attribution focuses on predicting future risks and returns, whereas ex-post attribution analyzes past performance.
* Why is Option D Correct?
* Ex-ante means "before the event", so it identifies potential risks before they impact returns.
* Used in risk forecasting and portfolio stress testing.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A & B (Portfolio outperformance, past performance) # These relate to ex-post (historical) attribution.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Performance Attribution), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 116
An inherent disadvantage with a defined contribution pension scheme is that:

A. Employees always have to contribute more than employers
B. The level of retirement income is not known before retirement
C. Employers never contribute to the scheme
D. Gains within the scheme are subject to capital gains tax

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Defined Contribution (DC) pension scheme is a retirement savings plan where contributions are invested, and the final pension depends on investment performance.
* Why is Option A Correct?
* The final retirement income is uncertain because it depends on investment returns, contribution levels, and annuity rates at retirement.
* Unlike Defined Benefit (DB) schemes, where retirees receive a fixed pension, DC schemes do not guarantee a set payout.
* How Defined Contribution (DC) Schemes Work:
* Contributions are made by employees (and often by employers).
* Funds are invested in stocks, bonds, or mixed assets.
* Upon retirement, the individual may withdraw lump sums, purchase an annuity, or opt for pension drawdown.
* Why Not Other Options?
* B (Employers never contribute) # Incorrect. Many employers do contribute, particularly in workplace pensions (e.g., auto-enrolment in the UK).
* C (Capital gains tax applies) # Incorrect. Pension funds grow tax-free (no CGT on gains).
* D (Employees always contribute more) # Incorrect. Employer contributions vary by scheme- some match employee contributions, others contribute less.
# Reference: UK Pensions Act 2008 (Auto-Enrolment), FCA Pension Regulations, CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 117
For what reason is holding bearer shares potentially disadvantageous?

A. Investors prefer not being publicly named on a share register
B. They are more difficult to value
C. Because it is not possible to sell part of the holding
D. The loss of the certificate might equal loss of the person's investment

Answer: D

Explanation:
Bearer shares are physical certificates that grant ownership, and the rights to those shares are with the bearer.
If the certificate is lost or stolen, the investment could effectively be unrecoverable since ownership cannot be traced back to the investor.
* Not being publicly named (A): This is an advantage of bearer shares, not a disadvantage.
* Difficulty in valuation (C): Bearer shares' value is similar to registered shares based on market conditions.
* Impossible to sell part (D): Fractional transactions can still occur with bearer shares.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Risks associated with different forms of equity ownership.
* Legal frameworks around bearer shares and their potential misuse in financial systems.

NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following will be a major constraint on a client's ability to invest and protect against all risks?

A. Risk aversion
B. Tax implications
C. Affordability
D. Age

Answer: C

Explanation:
The biggest constraint on an investor's ability to diversify and manage risk is their financial capacity (affordability).
* Why is Option B Correct?
* Investing requires capital, and affordability limits how much risk an investor can take.
* A client with low disposable income may not be able to diversify across multiple asset classes.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Age) # Age affects time horizon, but affordability is a direct constraint.
* C (Risk aversion) # Risk aversion affects investment choices, not the ability to invest.
* D (Tax implications) # Tax affects returns but does not prevent investment.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Investment Constraints), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 119
The Arbitrage Pricing Theory (APT) assumes investors can sell short. This involves:

A. Not selling the whole of your shareholding in one trade
B. Selling your shares and buying them back a short time later
C. Selling lots of securities over a short time frame
D. Selling something you do not own, intending to buy it back at a lower price later

Answer: D

Explanation:
Short selling is a trading strategy where an investor sells borrowed securities, expecting the price to decline, and then repurchases them at a lower price.
* Why is Option B Correct?
* Short sellers borrow shares, sell them at the current price, and later buy them back at a lower price to return to the lender, profiting from the price difference.
* APT assumes investors can sell short to exploit mispricings in multiple risk factors.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Not selling the whole shareholding) # Short selling does not involve owning shares.
* C (Selling & buying back shortly after) # Describes day trading, not short selling.
* D (Selling many securities quickly) # Short selling is not about trading speed, but betting on price declines.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Arbitrage Pricing Theory), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 120
......

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New ICWIM Exam Bootcamp, New ICWIM Exam Questions

2025 100% Free ICWIM –Professional 100% Free New Exam Bootcamp | New International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Exam Questions

CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q115-Q120):

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